I think you have calculate it wrong when u say "Honestly 100 trades gone out the window for what seems like no good reason?" Its totally wrong my friend.
Please explain to me how I am wrong?
In the myfxbook analysis it says you have made 100 trades exactly on GBPJPY,. Fact.
That single loss on GBPJPY cost the master account $840
Under the total amount won for 100 GBPJPY trades is says NEGATIVE $540
This means that 99 trades made $300 on GBPJPY and then a single trade lost *$840
If you expect that 2-3 times a year then what on earth is the point? With 99 trades you only make $300 but then with 1 loss you lose $840. If that happens 2-3 times a year as you say then it would cause big problems with the system. I guess what I am trying to say is with 100 trades that is statistically significant that 1 loss blows an entire years profit on that pair and 2 more times loss that it made.
Could you please explain to me how I am totally wrong? Honestly I would like to know because I would want to subscribe to this signal but I will take out GJ. But I could be a moron here and not see something obvious so please point it out to me. I am not being sarcastic by the way I genuinely want to know where my maths has gone wrong.
Can anyone else see that i am totally wrong??????? Feel free to point it out to me.
BRM
Please explain to me how I am wrong?
In the myfxbook analysis it says you have made 100 trades exactly on GBPJPY,. Fact.
That single loss on GBPJPY cost the master account $840
10.12.2016 01:31 | 10.12.2016 08:36 | GBPJPY | Sell | 0.61 | 125.66000 | 127.22400 | -156.4 | -837.41 | 7h 5m | -8.22% |
This means that 99 trades made $300 on GBPJPY and then a single trade lost *$840
If you expect that 2-3 times a year then what on earth is the point? With 99 trades you only make $300 but then with 1 loss you lose $840. If that happens 2-3 times a year as you say then it would cause big problems with the system. I guess what I am trying to say is with 100 trades that is statistically significant that 1 loss blows an entire years profit on that pair and 2 more times loss that it made.
Could you please explain to me how I am totally wrong? Honestly I would like to know because I would want to subscribe to this signal but I will take out GJ. But I could be a moron here and not see something obvious so please point it out to me. I am not being sarcastic by the way I genuinely want to know where my maths has gone wrong.
Can anyone else see that i am totally wrong??????? Feel free to point it out to me.
BRM
Comment